Bernoulli trials — probability of exactly 3 successes in 5 trials

medium CBSE JEE-MAIN CBSE 2023 3 min read

Question

A die is thrown 5 times. If getting a number greater than 4 is considered a “success,” find the probability of getting exactly 3 successes.

(CBSE 2023)


Solution — Step by Step

A “success” is getting 5 or 6 on a die. So:

p=P(success)=26=13p = P(\text{success}) = \frac{2}{6} = \frac{1}{3}

q=P(failure)=113=23q = P(\text{failure}) = 1 - \frac{1}{3} = \frac{2}{3}

Number of trials: n=5n = 5, Required successes: k=3k = 3.

P(X=k)=(nk)pkqnkP(X = k) = \binom{n}{k} p^k q^{n-k} P(X=3)=(53)(13)3(23)2P(X = 3) = \binom{5}{3} \left(\frac{1}{3}\right)^3 \left(\frac{2}{3}\right)^2 (53)=10\binom{5}{3} = 10 (13)3=127\left(\frac{1}{3}\right)^3 = \frac{1}{27} (23)2=49\left(\frac{2}{3}\right)^2 = \frac{4}{9} P(X=3)=10×127×49=10×4243=40243P(X = 3) = 10 \times \frac{1}{27} \times \frac{4}{9} = 10 \times \frac{4}{243} = \frac{40}{243}

The answer is 40243\frac{40}{243} 0.165\approx 0.165.


Why This Works

Each die throw is independent, with the same probability of success (1/31/3). This makes it a sequence of Bernoulli trials — repeated independent experiments with exactly two outcomes (success/failure) and constant probability.

The binomial formula counts it this way: (53)\binom{5}{3} is the number of ways to choose which 3 of the 5 throws are successes. For each such arrangement, the probability is p3q2p^3 q^2 (3 successes at 1/31/3 each, 2 failures at 2/32/3 each). Multiplying gives the total probability.

The term 40243\frac{40}{243} means roughly a 16.5% chance — getting 3 out of 5 when your success probability is only 1/31/3 is not very likely, which matches our intuition.


Alternative Method — Check with complementary approach

We can verify by computing k=05P(X=k)=1\sum_{k=0}^{5} P(X = k) = 1:

P(0)=32243P(0) = \frac{32}{243}, P(1)=80243P(1) = \frac{80}{243}, P(2)=80243P(2) = \frac{80}{243}, P(3)=40243P(3) = \frac{40}{243}, P(4)=10243P(4) = \frac{10}{243}, P(5)=1243P(5) = \frac{1}{243}

Sum: 32+80+80+40+10+1243=243243=1\frac{32 + 80 + 80 + 40 + 10 + 1}{243} = \frac{243}{243} = 1

For CBSE and JEE, always simplify the fraction — don’t leave it as 10×4/24310 \times 4/243. Also, a common question variation: “find the probability of at least 3 successes.” Then you’d compute P(3)+P(4)+P(5)=40+10+1243=51243=1781P(3) + P(4) + P(5) = \frac{40 + 10 + 1}{243} = \frac{51}{243} = \frac{17}{81}. Know the difference between “exactly” and “at least.”


Common Mistake

Students sometimes define p=4/6p = 4/6 instead of 2/62/6, misreading “greater than 4” as “4 or greater.” The phrase “greater than 4” means strictly greater — so only 5 and 6 qualify, giving p=2/6=1/3p = 2/6 = 1/3. “Greater than or equal to 4” would include 4, 5, 6, giving p=3/6=1/2p = 3/6 = 1/2. Read the problem statement carefully.

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