Simplify tan⁻¹(1) + tan⁻¹(2) + tan⁻¹(3)

hard CBSE JEE-MAIN JEE Main 2024 3 min read

Question

Simplify: tan1(1)+tan1(2)+tan1(3)\tan^{-1}(1) + \tan^{-1}(2) + \tan^{-1}(3)

This one looks straightforward — three inverse tan values added together. The trap is in handling the addition formula correctly when ab>1ab > 1. Most students apply the formula mechanically and drop the π\pi correction. Let’s do this carefully.


Solution — Step by Step

tan1(1)=π4\tan^{-1}(1) = \dfrac{\pi}{4} — this is a standard value every student should have memorised.

We now need to handle tan1(2)+tan1(3)\tan^{-1}(2) + \tan^{-1}(3) separately before adding π4\dfrac{\pi}{4}.

The formula is:

tan1a+tan1b={tan1 ⁣(a+b1ab)if ab<1π+tan1 ⁣(a+b1ab)if ab>1, a>0, b>0\tan^{-1}a + \tan^{-1}b = \begin{cases} \tan^{-1}\!\left(\dfrac{a+b}{1-ab}\right) & \text{if } ab < 1 \\[8pt] \pi + \tan^{-1}\!\left(\dfrac{a+b}{1-ab}\right) & \text{if } ab > 1,\ a > 0,\ b > 0 \end{cases}

For tan1(2)+tan1(3)\tan^{-1}(2) + \tan^{-1}(3): here ab=2×3=6>1ab = 2 \times 3 = 6 > 1, and both values are positive. So we must add π\pi.

tan1(2)+tan1(3)=π+tan1 ⁣(2+316)=π+tan1 ⁣(55)\tan^{-1}(2) + \tan^{-1}(3) = \pi + \tan^{-1}\!\left(\frac{2+3}{1 - 6}\right) = \pi + \tan^{-1}\!\left(\frac{5}{-5}\right) =π+tan1(1)=ππ4=3π4= \pi + \tan^{-1}(-1) = \pi - \frac{\pi}{4} = \frac{3\pi}{4} tan1(1)+tan1(2)+tan1(3)=π4+3π4=π\tan^{-1}(1) + \tan^{-1}(2) + \tan^{-1}(3) = \frac{\pi}{4} + \frac{3\pi}{4} = \boxed{\pi}

Why This Works

The tan1\tan^{-1} function has range (π2,π2)\left(-\dfrac{\pi}{2}, \dfrac{\pi}{2}\right). When we add two inverse tangents and the result should lie outside this range, the formula alone gives us the wrong quadrant. The π\pi correction term shifts the answer into the correct range.

When a>0a > 0, b>0b > 0, and ab>1ab > 1: both angles tan1(a)\tan^{-1}(a) and tan1(b)\tan^{-1}(b) are in the first quadrant, each greater than π4\dfrac{\pi}{4}. Their sum must exceed π2\dfrac{\pi}{2}, which is outside tan1\tan^{-1}‘s range — so the formula’s raw output undershoots by exactly π\pi.

Geometrically, think of it as the principal value “wrapping around.” The π\pi brings it back to the actual sum.


Alternative Method

Group the first two terms instead of the last two.

For tan1(1)+tan1(2)\tan^{-1}(1) + \tan^{-1}(2): ab=1×2=2>1ab = 1 \times 2 = 2 > 1, both positive, so add π\pi:

tan1(1)+tan1(2)=π+tan1 ⁣(1+212)=π+tan1(3)=πtan1(3)\tan^{-1}(1) + \tan^{-1}(2) = \pi + \tan^{-1}\!\left(\frac{1+2}{1-2}\right) = \pi + \tan^{-1}(-3) = \pi - \tan^{-1}(3)

Now add tan1(3)\tan^{-1}(3):

(πtan1(3))+tan1(3)=π\left(\pi - \tan^{-1}(3)\right) + \tan^{-1}(3) = \pi

Clean cancellation. Both groupings give π\pi, which is a good internal consistency check. If you get different answers with different groupings, you’ve missed a π\pi somewhere.

When the answer to an inverse trig sum is a “nice” multiple of π\pi, it’s almost always because of elegant cancellation like this. If your answer has a stray tan1\tan^{-1} left over, re-check whether you applied the ab>1ab > 1 correction.


Common Mistake

Forgetting the π\pi correction when ab>1ab > 1.

Students apply tan1(2)+tan1(3)=tan1 ⁣(55)=tan1(1)=π4\tan^{-1}(2) + \tan^{-1}(3) = \tan^{-1}\!\left(\dfrac{5}{-5}\right) = \tan^{-1}(-1) = -\dfrac{\pi}{4} and get a final answer of π4+(π4)=0\dfrac{\pi}{4} + \left(-\dfrac{\pi}{4}\right) = 0.

Zero is clearly wrong — all three values tan1(1)\tan^{-1}(1), tan1(2)\tan^{-1}(2), tan1(3)\tan^{-1}(3) are positive, so their sum must be positive too. Always sanity-check the sign of your answer. The missing π\pi in the formula is the single most common error in this category of JEE questions.

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