Question
A test for a disease is 95% accurate (both for positives and negatives). The disease affects 1% of the population. A random person tests positive. What is the probability they actually have the disease?
Solution — Step by Step
Let = “has disease”, = “tests positive”.
, .
(true positive). (false positive).
We want .
.
.
Final answer: .
Why This Works
The result is counter-intuitive — only 16% chance of actually having the disease despite a “95% accurate” test! This is the classic base-rate fallacy. When the disease is rare, false positives outnumber true positives even with a high test accuracy.
Imagine a population of . About have the disease (95 test positive, 5 miss). are healthy ( false positive, correctly negative). Of the positive tests total, only are real — .
Alternative Method
Build a tree diagram or contingency table with people:
| Test + | Test − | Total | |
|---|---|---|---|
| Disease | 95 | 5 | 100 |
| Healthy | 495 | 9405 | 9900 |
| Total | 590 | 9410 | 10000 |
. Identical answer, no formulas.
Common Mistake
Students often confuse with . They are different quantities! “Test accuracy” is — given disease, probability of positive test. “Predictive value of a positive test” is — given positive test, probability of disease. These differ wildly when the disease is rare. Always write down which conditional you’re computing.