3D Geometry: Diagram-Based Questions (11)

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Question

Find the shortest distance between the lines L1:r=(i^+2j^4k^)+λ(2i^+3j^+6k^)L_1: \vec{r} = (\hat{i} + 2\hat{j} - 4\hat{k}) + \lambda(2\hat{i} + 3\hat{j} + 6\hat{k}) and L2:r=(3i^+3j^5k^)+μ(2i^+3j^+6k^)L_2: \vec{r} = (3\hat{i} + 3\hat{j} - 5\hat{k}) + \mu(2\hat{i} + 3\hat{j} + 6\hat{k}).

Solution — Step by Step

Direction vectors are b1=2i^+3j^+6k^\vec{b}_1 = 2\hat{i} + 3\hat{j} + 6\hat{k} and b2=2i^+3j^+6k^\vec{b}_2 = 2\hat{i} + 3\hat{j} + 6\hat{k}identical. So the lines are parallel.

When parallel, we cannot use the cross-product formula b1×b2|\vec{b}_1 \times \vec{b}_2| in the denominator (it would be zero). We use the formula for distance between parallel lines instead.

d=(a2a1)×bbd = \tfrac{|(\vec{a}_2 - \vec{a}_1) \times \vec{b}|}{|\vec{b}|} a2a1=(31)i^+(32)j^+(5(4))k^=2i^+j^k^\vec{a}_2 - \vec{a}_1 = (3-1)\hat{i} + (3-2)\hat{j} + (-5-(-4))\hat{k} = 2\hat{i} + \hat{j} - \hat{k} (a2a1)×b=i^j^k^211236(\vec{a}_2 - \vec{a}_1) \times \vec{b} = \begin{vmatrix} \hat{i} & \hat{j} & \hat{k} \\ 2 & 1 & -1 \\ 2 & 3 & 6 \end{vmatrix} =i^(16(1)3)j^(26(1)2)+k^(2312)= \hat{i}(1 \cdot 6 - (-1) \cdot 3) - \hat{j}(2 \cdot 6 - (-1) \cdot 2) + \hat{k}(2 \cdot 3 - 1 \cdot 2) =i^(6+3)j^(12+2)+k^(62)=9i^14j^+4k^= \hat{i}(6 + 3) - \hat{j}(12 + 2) + \hat{k}(6 - 2) = 9\hat{i} - 14\hat{j} + 4\hat{k} b=4+9+36=7|\vec{b}| = \sqrt{4 + 9 + 36} = 7 (a2a1)×b=81+196+16=293|(\vec{a}_2 - \vec{a}_1) \times \vec{b}| = \sqrt{81 + 196 + 16} = \sqrt{293} d=2937d = \tfrac{\sqrt{293}}{7}

Final answer: d=2937d = \mathbf{\tfrac{\sqrt{293}}{7}} units.

Why This Works

For parallel lines, the perpendicular distance is the same at every point. We pick any vector connecting the two lines (here a2a1\vec{a}_2 - \vec{a}_1) and project out the part along b\vec{b} — what’s left is the perpendicular component.

The cross-product trick gives us the perpendicular component’s magnitude in one shot: u×b/b|\vec{u} \times \vec{b}|/|\vec{b}| is the area of the parallelogram divided by the base, which is the height.

Alternative Method

We can drop a perpendicular from any point on L2L_2 (say a2\vec{a}_2) onto L1L_1. Set up the foot of perpendicular by minimising distance — gets to the same answer through more algebra.

Common Mistake

Applying the skew lines formula d=(a2a1)(b1×b2)/b1×b2d = |(\vec{a}_2 - \vec{a}_1) \cdot (\vec{b}_1 \times \vec{b}_2)| / |\vec{b}_1 \times \vec{b}_2| when the lines are parallel. Since b1×b2=0\vec{b}_1 \times \vec{b}_2 = \vec{0} for parallel lines, you get 0/00/0. Always check for parallelism first — it’s a 3030-second sanity check that saves the whole question.

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